Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 04:27
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If a narcissist can't feel remorse, can they ever feel regret for an evil act after going to rehab?
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Autism and ADHD have distinct brain connectivity signatures, study finds - Medical Xpress
What's (not “whats”) the rule?